Indian Constitution Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams

The General Knowledge Questions related to Indian Constitutions which are commonly asked in competitive exams. Indian Constitutions Questions is one of the never-ending topics and there are thousands of important questions which comes under Indian Constitution. Candidates who preparing for government entrance exam such as IBPS, SSC should know the answer for all the Indian Constitution Question. Some of the Important Indian Constitution Questions are mentioned below: 

Indian Constitution GK Questions and Answers

1. The jurisdiction covering the Andaman and Nicobar islands falls under the supervision of __:

[A] A circuit bench of the Bombay High Court at Port Blair
[B] A circuit bench of the Madras High Court at Port Blair
[C] A circuit bench of the Calcutta High Court at Port Blair
[D] A circuit bench of Supreme Court of India at Port Blair

Answer: C

2. Jurisdiction of which among the following high courts covers the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?

[A] Tamil Nadu High Court
[B] Kerala High Court
[C] Calcutta High Court
[D] Bombay High Court

Answer: B

3. The number of judges can be altered in the Supreme Court by __:

[A] Presidential Order
[B] Parliament by Law
[C] Supreme Court by Notification
[D] Central Government by notification

Answer: B

4. How long a person should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court of India?

[A] 10 Years
[B] 12 Years
[C] 15 Years
[D] 20 Years

Answer: A

5. Via which among the following amendments of the Constitution of India, Delhi was designated as National Capital Territory (NCT)?

[A] 63rd Amendment Act
[B] 69th Amendment Act
[C] 74th Amendment Act
[D] 76th Amendment Act

Answer: B

6. In India, a three-tier Panchayat is envisaged for states which have a population above__:

[A] 15 Lakhs
[B] 20 Lakhs
[C] 25 Lakhs
[D] 30 Lakhs

Answer: B

7. With reference to the executive power in a state in India, which among the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The executive power of the state is vested in Governor
  2. Real executive authority in a state is Council of Ministers
  3. All executive decisions in a state are taken in the name of Chief Minister

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Answer: A

8. Who among the following can dismiss Governor of a statement from his office?

[A] State Legislative Assembly
[B] Parliament
[C] President
[D] None of them

Answer: C

9. Consider the following official languages of India:

1.Sindhi and Nepali
2.Konkani and Manipuri
3.Bodo and Santhali
4.Santhali and Konkani

Answer: C

10. Consider the following Indian Religious Communities:

4.ParsisWhich among the above has been conferred the ‘minority’ status by the Government of India?

[A] 1 and 4
[B] 1, 2 and 4
[C] 2, 3 and 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

11. Which of the following Statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of India? [A] It is an independent and statutory body. [B] It consists of members having a tenure of six years. [C] It acts as a court for arbitration of disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties. [D] Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections to Gram Panchayats and State Municipalities. Answer: B

12. Consider the following Articles of the Constitution of India:

  1. Article 72 – Pardoning power of the president
  2. Article 143 – Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
  3. Article 360 – Provisions relating to Financial Emergency
  4. Articles (148-151) – Powers and functions of the Attorney General of India

Which among the above Articles are paired correctly with their respective provisions?

[A] 1 and 3
[B] 1, 2 and 3
[C] 1, 2 and 4
[D] All of them

Answer: B

Notes: Article (148-151) are relating to the powers and functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

13. Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a Member of Parliament?

  1. If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.
  2. If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.
  3. If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
  4. If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.

Choose the correct option:

[A] Only 2
[B] Only 4
[C] 1 and 4
[D] 1,2 and 4

Answer: B

Notes: Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP:
(1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament-
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;
(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament, explanation For the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State.
(2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.

14. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of :

[A] Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, and Nagaland
[B] Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
[C] Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland
[D] Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland

Answer: B

Notes: The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram which has been dealt separately in 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

15. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has to be amended to provide for the formation of a new State?

[A] First Schedule
[B] Second Schedule
[C] Third Schedule
[D] Ninth Schedule

Answer: A

16. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court of India to adjudicate disputes between the Centre and the States through:

[A] Appellate Jurisdiction
[B] Original Jurisdiction
[C] Advisory Jurisdiction
[D] Writ Jurisdiction

Answer: B

17. Which of the following is a part of the electoral college for the Election of the President but does not participate in the proceedings for his/her impeachment?

[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] State Legislative Assemblies
[D] State Legislative Councils

Answer: C

18. The Swaran Singh Committee recommended :

[A] The Constitution of State-Level Election Commissions.
[B] Panchayati-Raj reforms.
[C] Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
[D] Interlinking of Himalayan and peninsular rivers.

Answer: C

Notes: In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975-1977). The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution. It stressed that the citizens should become conscious that in addition to the enjoyment of rights, they also have certain duties to perform as well. The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.

19. Which Indian State has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Gujarat

Answer: A

20. Arrange the following functionaries/officials in their respective order of precedence-

1.Governors of states (within their respective states)
2.Former Presidents, Deputy Prime Minister
3.Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Leaders of Chief Opposition in the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

[A] 1-2-3
[B] 2-1-3
[C] 3-2-1
[D] 2-3-1

Answer: A

21. Which one of the following items/Subjects belongs to the Concurrent list of the VIIth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

[A] Public Health and Sanitation
[B] Forests
[C] Stock Exchanges
[D] Agriculture

Answer: B

22. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in :

[A] Lok Sabha only
[B] Rajya Sabha only
[C] Either of the two houses of the Parliament
[D] Joint Sitting of the two houses of the Parliament

Answer: B

23. The Department of Border Management is a department under which of the following Union Ministries?

[A] Ministry of Defence
[B] Ministry of Home Affairs
[C] Ministry of External Affairs
[D] Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Answer: B

24. Which of the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency (Areawise)?

[A] Arunachal West
[B] Ladakh
[C] Barmer
[D] Kutch

Answer: B

Notes: The top five area-wise constituencies are- Ladakh (173,266 sq km), Barmer (71,601 sq km), Kutch (41,644 sq km), Arunachal West (40,572 sq km) and Arunachal East (39,749 sq km).

25. Which of the following Indian States have a Bicameral Legislature?

1.Uttar Pradesh
4.Jammu and Kashmir

[A] 1 and 2
[B] 2 and 4
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] 1, 2 and 4

Answer: D

26. Andaman and Nicobar( Protection of Aboriginal tribes )Amendment Regulation 2012 has been promulgated under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to take such measures for the protection of Aboriginal tribes in case of Union Territories. This regulation will protect which of the following tribes?

[A] Onges
[B] Shompens
[C] Sentilese
[D] Jarawas

 Answer: D

27. Who among the following operates the National Disaster Response Fund which was constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Union Minister for Home Affairs
[C] Union Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
[D] Union Minister for Environment and Forests

Answer: B

28. Which of the following are among the taxes levied exclusively by the Central Government and are mentioned in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?

1.Corporation Tax
2.Taxes on advertisement in the newspapers
3.Taxes on Agricultural income
4.Taxes on consumption/sale of electricity

[A] Only 2
[B] Only 4
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 3 and 4

Answer: C

Notes: Taxes on Agricultural income and Taxes on consumption/sale of electricity are levied by the State Governments.

29. The Non-Votable charges or ‘Charged Expenditure’ included in the Union Budget include

1.Salary and Allowances of the Presiding Officers of the houses of Parliament.
2.Salary and Allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
3.Salary and Allowances of the CAG.
4.Pension of the retired Judges of the Supreme Court.
5.Pension of the retired Judges of High Courts.Select the option(s) which is/are correct?

[A] 1 and 2
[B] 1, 2 and 3
[C] 1, 2, 3 and 4
[D] All of them

Answer: D

30. Unaided minority institutions have been excluded from the ambit of RTE Act due to which of the following fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution:

[A] Article 16
[B] Article 19(1)(c)
[C] Article 29
[D] Article 30(1)

Answer: D

31. Article 20 of the Indian Constitution is an important fundamental right as it provides protection in respect of conviction for offenses. The safeguard which is not provided to the persons accused of a crime under Article 20 is :

[A] Ex-Post facto law
[B] Double jeopardy
[C] Prohibition against self-incrimination
[D] Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours

Answer: D

Notes: Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is a safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention provided under Article 22.

32. The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections of /to the :
[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] Panchayats and Municipalities in the State
[D] All of the above

Answer: C

Notes: The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to the Parliament, State legislatures, President and Vice President.

33. Article 123 of the Indian Constitution provides for:
[A] The Ordinance Making power of the President
[B] Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
[C] Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir
[D] An Election Commission to hold free and fair elections in the country.

Answer: A

34. President can proclaim National Emergency under Article 352 in the entire country or in any part of it, on the grounds of :
[A] External Aggression
[B] Armed Rebellion
[C] Internal Disturbance
[D] Both [1] and [2]

 Answer: D

Notes: The term ‘armed rebellion’ did not exist in the original constitution but was inserted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978) replacing the original term ‘internal disturbance.

35. Which of the following writs literally means ‘We Command’ ?
[A] Habeas Corpus
[B] Mandamus
[C] Quo Warranto
[D] Certiorari

Answer: B

36. Which of the following High Courts has the largest jurisdiction in the country?
[A] Bombay High Court
[B] Guwahati High Court
[C] Allahabad High Court
[D] Calcutta High Court

Answer: B

37. For which of the following bills, there is no constitutional provision for a joint sitting of both the houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock ?

[A] Ordinary bill
[B] Money bill
[C] Constitution Amendment Bill
[D] Both 2 & 3

Answer: D

38. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)?
[A] It is a statutory body.
[B] It is a staff agency to the Prime Minister.
[C] It has been given the status of a department.
[D] It has no attached and subordinate office under it.

Answer: A

Notes: PMO is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body.

39. Many key features of the constitution such as the federal structure of government, provincial autonomy, a bicameral central legislature and the principle of separation of powers, are directly taken from:
[A] Nehru Report of 1928
[B] Government of India Act, 1919
[C] Government of India Act, 1935
[D] Indian Independence Act, 1947

Answer: C

40. Which of the following is not one of the official languages mentioned in the VIIIth Schedule?
[A] Persian
[B] Sanskrit
[C] Kashmiri
[D] Nepali

Answer: A

41. Which Article is for “Protection of interests of Minorities”?

(A) Article 26
(B) Article 27
(C) Article 29
(D) Article 30

Answer: C

42 The plan to transfer power to the Indians and partition of the country was laid down in the?

(A) Cabinet Mission Plan
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Cripps Mission
(D) The Mountbatten Plan

Answer: D

43 For the first time Indian Legislature was made “Bi-cameral” under:

(A) Government of India Act, 1861
(B) Government of India Act, 1892
(C) Government of India Act, 1915
(D) Government of India Act, 1919

Answer: D

44 Which Act divided legislative powers between the Centre and Provinces?

(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1892
(D) Government of India Act, 1861

Answer: A

45 Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee?

(A) N Gopalaswamy
(B) K.M Munshi
(C) N Madhava Rao
(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Answer: D

46 Which Article is related with “Abolition of Untouchability”?

(A) Article 20
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 17

Answer: D

47 “The Constitution should give India Domination Status”, was a proposal in?

(A) Cabinet Mission Plan
(B) Cripps Mission
(C) The Mountbatten Plan
(D) Simon Commission

Answer: B

48 The first statute for the governance of India, under the direct rule of the British Government, was the

(A) Government of India Act, 1858
(B) Government of India Act, 1861
(C) Government of India Act, 1892
(D) Government of India Act, 1915

Answer: A

49 Constitution of India was adopted by constituent assembly on?

(A) 25 October 1948
(B) 25 October 1949
(C) 26 November 1948
(D) 26 November 1949

Answer: D

50 Which Act is associated with “Courts can interpret the rules and regulations.”?

(A) Regulating Act of 1773
(B) Pitts India Act of 1784
(C) Charter Act of 1793
(D) Charter Act of 1893

 Answer: C

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